As I understood it, the understanding (the self-reflective, rational part of the soul) exists after death in a disembodied state. But Aristotle seems to say this is sans appetite, emotion, perception, or possibly even imagination. So it seems rather inert — just a shade of the former composite self. It does not seem like much of an existence at all, like a self-reflective rock unable to think or sense anything other than its rock-ness.
Does he think the understanding can exist on its own, disembodied?
As I understood it, the understanding (the self-reflective, rational part of the soul) exists after death in a disembodied state. But Aristotle seems to say this is sans appetite, emotion, perception, or possibly even imagination. So it seems rather inert — just a shade of the former composite self. It does not seem like much of an existence at all, like a self-reflective rock unable to think or sense anything other than its rock-ness.